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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Training Pdf Material & CIC Reliable Practice Questions & CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Exam Prep Practice

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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q60-Q65):

NEW QUESTION # 60
An infection preventionist is reviewing employee health immunization policies. What is the recommendation for tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) for a 55-year-old nurse who received all childhood vaccinations?

A. Two doses of Tdap vaccine at least 14 days apart
B. Two doses of Tdap vaccine at least 28 days apart
C. One dose of Tdap vaccine
D. No additional vaccination is recommended

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is A, "One dose of Tdap vaccine," as this is the recommended immunization for a 55-year- old nurse who received all childhood vaccinations. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), adults who have completed a primary series of childhood vaccinations (typically 5 doses of DTaP or DTP) should receive a single booster dose of Tdap if they have not previously received it. This is especially critical for healthcare personnel, such as a 55-year-old nurse, due to their increased risk of exposure to pertussis and the need to protect vulnerable patients (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). The Tdap vaccine, which protects against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, is recommended once between ages 11-64, with a preference for administration in early adulthood (e.g., 19-26 years) or as soon as feasible for older adults, including this 55-year-old nurse, to ensure immunity against pertussis, which wanes over time. For individuals aged 65 and older, Tdap is still recommended if not previously received, though Tdap is preferred over Td (tetanus and diphtheria only) for healthcare workers to address pertussis risk.
Option B (two doses of Tdap vaccine at least 14 days apart) and Option C (two doses of Tdap vaccine at least
28 days apart) are not standard recommendations for adults with a complete childhood vaccination history.
Multiple doses are typically reserved for individuals with incomplete primary series or specific high-risk conditions, not for this scenario. Option D (no additional vaccination is recommended) is incorrect because, even with a complete childhood series, a Tdap booster is advised for healthcare workers to maintain protection, especially given the nurse's occupational exposure risks (CDC Immunization Schedules, 2024).
After receiving the Tdap booster, a Td booster every 10 years is recommended to maintain tetanus and diphtheria immunity, but the initial Tdap dose is the priority for this nurse.
The recommendation for one Tdap dose aligns with CBIC's emphasis on evidence-based immunization policies to prevent transmission of vaccine-preventable diseases in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This ensures the nurse is protected and contributes to herd immunity, reducing the risk of pertussis outbreaks in the healthcare environment.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders, 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Immunization Schedules, 2024. ACIP Recommendations for Tdap, 2011 (updated 2023).

NEW QUESTION # 61
On January 31, the nursing staff of a long-term care facility reports that five out of 35 residents have developed high fever, nasal discharge, and a dry cough. The BEST diagnostic tool to determine the causative agent is:

A. Sputum culture
B. Legionella serology
C. Blood culture
D. Nasopharyngeal swab

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scenario describes a cluster of five out of 35 residents in a long-term care facility developing high fever, nasal discharge, and a dry cough, suggesting a potential respiratory infection outbreak. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Identification of Infectious Disease Processes" and "Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation" domains, which require selecting the most appropriate diagnostic tool to identify the causative agent promptly. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) provides guidance on diagnostic approaches for respiratory infections, particularly in congregate settings like long-term care facilities.
Option C, "Nasopharyngeal swab," is the best diagnostic tool in this context. The symptoms-high fever, nasal discharge, and a dry cough-are characteristic of upper respiratory infections, such as influenza, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), or other viral pathogens common in congregate settings. A nasopharyngeal swab is the gold standard for detecting these agents, as it collects samples from the nasopharynx, where many respiratory viruses replicate. The CDC recommends nasopharyngeal swabs for molecular testing (e.g., PCR) to identify viruses like influenza, RSV, or SARS-CoV-2, especially during outbreak investigations in healthcare facilities. The dry cough and nasal discharge align with upper respiratory involvement, making this sample type more targeted than alternatives. Given the potential for rapid spread among vulnerable residents, early identification via nasopharyngeal swab is critical to guide infection control measures.
Option A, "Blood culture," is less appropriate as the best initial tool. Blood cultures are used to detect systemic bacterial infections (e.g., bacteremia or sepsis), but the symptoms described are more suggestive of a primary respiratory infection rather than a bloodstream infection. While secondary bacteremia could occur, blood cultures are not the first-line diagnostic for this presentation and are more relevant if systemic signs (e.
g., hypotension) worsen. Option B, "Sputum culture," is useful for lower respiratory infections, such as pneumonia, where productive cough and sputum production are prominent. However, the dry cough and nasal discharge indicate an upper respiratory focus, and sputum may be difficult to obtain from elderly residents, reducing its utility here. Option D, "Legionella serology," is specific for diagnosing Legionella pneumophila, which causes Legionnaires' disease, typically presenting with fever, cough, and sometimes gastrointestinal symptoms, often in association with water sources. While possible, the lack of mention of pneumonia or water exposure, combined with the upper respiratory symptoms, makes Legionella serology less likely as the best initial test. Serology also requires time for antibody development, delaying diagnosis compared to direct sampling.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines for outbreak management in long-term care facilities (e.g., "Prevention Strategies for Seasonal Influenza in Healthcare Settings," 2018) prioritize rapid respiratory pathogen identification, with nasopharyngeal swabs being the preferred method for viral detection. Given the symptom profile and outbreak context, Option C is the most effective and immediate diagnostic tool to determine the causative agent.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Prevention Strategies for Seasonal Influenza in Healthcare Settings, 2018.
* CDC Guidelines for the Prevention and Control of Outbreaks in Long-Term Care Facilities, 2015.

NEW QUESTION # 62
Working with public health agencies to collect and analyze indicators that might signal an increase in community illness is an example of which type of surveillance?

A. Passive
B. Syndromic
C. Active
D. Targeted

Answer: B

Explanation:
Surveillance is a critical tool in infection prevention and control, used to monitor disease trends and guide public health responses. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation" domain, which aligns with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) "Principles of Epidemiology in Public Health Practice" (3rd Edition, 2012).
The question describes a process of collecting and analyzing indicators to signal an increase in community illness, requiring identification of the appropriate surveillance type among the options provided.
Option C, "Syndromic," is the correct answer. Syndromic surveillance involves monitoring non-specific health indicators or symptoms (e.g., fever, respiratory complaints, or gastrointestinal issues) that may precede a formal diagnosis, aiming to detect potential outbreaks or increases in community illness early. The CDC defines syndromic surveillance as the real-time or near-real-time collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data to provide actionable information, often in collaboration with public health agencies. This approach uses data from sources like emergency department visits, over-the-counter medication sales, or absenteeism reports to identify trends before laboratory confirmation, making it well-suited to the described scenario of signaling community illness increases.
Option A, "Passive," involves healthcare providers or laboratories reporting cases to public health authorities on a voluntary or mandatory basis without active prompting (e.g., routine notifiable disease reporting). While passive surveillance contributes to baseline data, it is less proactive and not specifically designed to signal early increases in illness, making it less fitting. Option B, "Active," entails public health officials actively seeking data from healthcare facilities or providers (e.g., calling to confirm cases during an outbreak). This is more resource-intensive and typically used for specific investigations rather than ongoing community trend monitoring, which aligns better with syndromic methods. Option D, "Targeted," refers to surveillance focused on a specific population, disease, or event (e.g., monitoring TB in a high-risk group). The scenario's broad focus on community illness indicators does not suggest a targeted approach.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines highlight syndromic surveillance as a key strategy for early detection of community-wide health threats, often involving collaboration with public health agencies. Option C best matches the described activity of analyzing indicators to signal illness increases, making it the correct choice.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Principles of Epidemiology in Public Health Practice, 3rd Edition, 2012.
* CDC Syndromic Surveillance Systems, 2020.

NEW QUESTION # 63
An infection preventionist (IP) receives a phone call from a local health department alerting the hospital of the occurrence of a sewer main break. Contamination of the city water supply is a possibility. Which of the following actions should the IP perform FIRST?

A. Contact the Employee Health department and ask for collaboration in case-finding.
B. Review microbiology laboratory reports for enteric organisms in the past week.
C. Review the emergency preparedness plan with engineering for sources of potable water.
D. Notify the Emergency and Admissions departments to report diarrhea cases to infection control.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, "Review microbiology laboratory reports for enteric organisms in the past week," as this is the first action the infection preventionist (IP) should perform following the alert of a sewer main break and potential contamination of the city water supply. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, a rapid assessment of existing data is a critical initial step in investigating a potential waterborne outbreak. Reviewing microbiology laboratory reports for enteric organisms (e.g., Escherichia coli, Salmonella, or Shigella) helps the IP identify any recent spikes in infections that could indicate water supply contamination, providing an evidence-based starting point for the investigation (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.2 - Analyze surveillance data). This step leverages available hospital data to assess the scope and urgency of the situation before initiating broader actions.
Option A (notify the Emergency and Admissions departments to report diarrhea cases to infection control) is an important subsequent step to enhance surveillance, but it relies on proactive reporting and does not provide immediate evidence of an ongoing issue. Option C (contact the Employee Health department and ask for collaboration in case-finding) is valuable for involving additional resources, but it should follow the initial data review to prioritize case-finding efforts based on identified trends. Option D (review the emergency preparedness plan with engineering for sources of potable water) is a critical preparedness action, but it is more relevant once contamination is confirmed or as a preventive measure, not as the first step in assessing the current situation.
The focus on reviewing laboratory reports aligns with CBIC's emphasis on using surveillance data to guide infection prevention responses, enabling the IP to quickly determine if the sewer main break has already impacted patient health and to escalate actions accordingly (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II:
Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.1 - Conduct surveillance for healthcare- associated infections and epidemiologically significant organisms). This approach is consistent with CDC guidelines for responding to waterborne outbreak alerts (CDC Environmental Public Health Guidelines, 2020).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competencies 2.1 - Conduct surveillance for healthcare-associated infections and epidemiologically significant organisms, 2.2 - Analyze surveillance data. CDC Environmental Public Health Guidelines, 2020.

NEW QUESTION # 64
When implementing a multimodal strategy (or bundle) for improving hand hygiene, the infection preventionist should focus on Calculator

A. institutional assessment of significant barriers.
B. cost effectiveness of hand hygiene products.
C. availability of gloves in the patient care area
D. signage for hand hygiene reminders.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When implementing a multimodal strategy (or bundle) for hand hygiene, the infection preventionist should first assess barriers to compliance before implementing solutions.
Step-by-Step Justification:
* Understanding Barriers First:
* Identifying barriers (e.g., lack of access to sinks, high workload, or poor compliance culture) is critical for effective intervention.
* APIC Guidelines on Hand Hygiene Improvement:
* Strategies must be tailored based on the institution's specific challenges.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Signage for hand hygiene reminders:
* Signage alone is insufficient without addressing systemic barriers.
* B. Cost-effectiveness of hand hygiene products:
* While important, cost analysis comes after identifying compliance barriers.
* C. Availability of gloves in the patient care area:
* Gloves do not replace hand hygiene and may lead to lower compliance.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC/JCR Workbook, "Hand Hygiene Compliance and Institutional Barriers".
* APIC Text, "Hand Hygiene Improvement Strategies".

NEW QUESTION # 65
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2025 NEWEST 100% FREE CIC–100% FREE NEW TEST PREP | CBIC CERTIFIED INFECTION CONTROL EXAM RELIABLE TEST NOTES

2025 Newest 100% Free CIC–100% Free New Test Prep | CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Reliable Test Notes